$1 to $2 one time. Also fallacy?

[Mr J]

  If I bet $1 on red (say I lose) my next and only bet is now $2 on red. Did I just use fallacy? Is fallacy in BOTH the "betting red again" as well as using a one dollar progression one time. Are they BOTH fallacy or just one of them (which one?) or neither? Ken

[Proofreaders2000]

I say betting at all, much less progressions is fallacy, because the casino has the edge at all times.  There's no guaranteed winner for the bettor.

[Mr J]

Thats interesting, perhaps another example of fallacy? I dont agree with it but I hear what you are saying. So lets say I walk in the casino, I put $3 on red. I lose and walk out the door. Is that fallacy?  Ken

[Proofreaders2000]

I can say that is fallacy also.  You are not guaranteed to lose, which is why I gamble.  The odds may be against the bettor, but many gamblers win some of the time.  If the casino didn't have winners people wouldn't gamble.

[Mr J]

Any other replies? $1 to $2...one time, then leave casino. Fallacy?  Ken

[Mr J]

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