Print Page - $1 to $2 one time. Also fallacy?

Title: $1 to $2 one time. Also fallacy?
Post by: Mr J on January 28, 2010, 02:01:22 AM

If I bet $1 on red (say I lose) my next and only bet is now $2 on red. Did I just use fallacy? Is fallacy in BOTH the "betting red again" as well as using a one dollar progression one time. Are they BOTH fallacy or just one of them (which one?) or neither? Ken

Title: Re: $1 to $2 one time. Also fallacy?
Post by: Proofreaders2000 on January 28, 2010, 09:27:19 AM

I say betting at all, much less progressions is fallacy, because the casino has the edge at all times. There's no guaranteed winner for the bettor.

Title: Re: $1 to $2 one time. Also fallacy?
Post by: Mr J on January 28, 2010, 03:19:30 PM

Thats interesting, perhaps another example of fallacy? I dont agree with it but I hear what you are saying. So lets say I walk in the casino, I put $3 on red. I lose and walk out the door. Is that fallacy? Ken

Title: Re: $1 to $2 one time. Also fallacy?
Post by: Proofreaders2000 on January 28, 2010, 03:30:03 PM

I can say that is fallacy also. You are not guaranteed to lose, which is why I gamble. The odds may be against the bettor, but many gamblers win some of the time. If the casino didn't have winners people wouldn't gamble.

Title: Re: $1 to $2 one time. Also fallacy?
Post by: Mr J on January 30, 2010, 11:55:22 PM

Any other replies? $1 to $2...one time, then leave casino. Fallacy? Ken

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