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Main => General Board => Topic started by: Mr J on September 08, 2010, 08:04:08 PM

Title: 1.6% vs. 2.2%
Post by: Mr J on September 08, 2010, 08:04:08 PM
ROFL.....Ok, just so I got this straight. The guy playing (whatever game) at 1.6% might have 'better days' vs. the guy playing (whatever game) at 2.2% *BUT* in the END (long term), the HA will still f**k them both, correct? Ken
Title: Re: 1.6% vs. 2.2%
Post by: Jean-Claud on September 09, 2010, 07:21:41 AM
Correct
Title: Re: 1.6% vs. 2.2%
Post by: Boo_Ray on September 11, 2010, 11:10:30 AM
Quote from: Mr J on September 08, 2010, 08:04:08 PM
ROFL.....Ok, just so I got this straight. The guy playing (whatever game) at 1.6% might have 'better days' vs. the guy playing (whatever game) at 2.2% *BUT* in the END (long term), the HA will still f**k them both, correct? Ken

ofcourse if you aproach it the wrong way... the "mathematical way"...
Title: Re: 1.6% vs. 2.2%
Post by: Mr J on September 11, 2010, 01:10:34 PM
Ok, lets say a guy is playing a game at 1.6% HA. He plays for 15 hours per week, for 30 years. Will he be ahead after that 30 years? Ken
Title: Re: 1.6% vs. 2.2%
Post by: GLC on September 11, 2010, 02:18:46 PM
Quote from: Mr J on September 11, 2010, 01:10:34 PM
Ok, lets say a guy is playing a game at 1.6% HA. He plays for 15 hours per week, for 30 years. Will he be ahead after that 30 years? Ken

If he's lucky the casino doesn't have a chance.
If he's unlucky he doesn't have a chance.
Title: Re: 1.6% vs. 2.2%
Post by: Mr J on September 11, 2010, 03:51:18 PM
Forget luck, I'm only asking this based on the MATH ( :sarcastic:). Some of these clowns like to have it BOTH WAYS as usual. I hear, 'ha ha Ken, I play a game with a .0000001% HA. I'm better than you". BBUUTTT.... I ask those SAME guys, if you played 15 hours per week, for 30 years, will you be ahead after that 30 years? All I hear is a pin drop. I am *NOT* asking who will lose more, you or me, I did not ask that. Will you be ahead (according to the math) after 30 years?  Ken
Title: Re: 1.6% vs. 2.2%
Post by: Herb6 on September 11, 2010, 04:18:32 PM
Ken,

What you're not understanding is AP players aren't playing with against a 2.67% house edge, and they aren't playing against a .000000000005% edge.

The term A.P. means advantage player.

AP players are the ones with the edge.  In other words, the casino is the one that has the disadvantage.  This is why they can be winning after 30 years of play.

While you and the JP types are playing as little as possible in a futile attempt to limit losses, the AP player is attempting to play for long periods of time, so that they can win as much as is possible.
Title: Re: 1.6% vs. 2.2%
Post by: Mr J on September 11, 2010, 04:27:01 PM
I didn't add AP (cough) into the conversation because it does not exist. Dont you have some new user names to make up? Ken
Title: Re: 1.6% vs. 2.2%
Post by: Herb6 on September 11, 2010, 04:33:26 PM
Mr. J.,

Jealousy is a bitter pill to swallow.


Just because you can't do it, you attempt to convince yourself that others can't do it either.  It's your lame attempt to explain your own failures.  Your bitterness and jealousy of others that have been more successful than you shows  in your posts.

All a naive person has to do is to read on the history of the different casino games to find evidence of the various AP players for the different games throughout history.  Card counters in BJ are a good example.
Title: Re: 1.6% vs. 2.2%
Post by: Nathan Detroit on September 11, 2010, 04:47:16 PM
The difference between  JP`s method players  and   AP   is   as following:

The JP players  don`t  need  a hanky to wipe their sweaty little  hands  while  the AP player needs a supply of  Kleenex  and  half a dozen fresh underwear during the course of a session. :ok:

There  are HARD BETS  recommended by JP for  outside play ranging from $ 100 - 1,2000 maybe  higher if permissible  by casinos. ( Book and pages upon request )




Those  are definetely two different approaches   and should be classified  as "to each his  own" and  are  personal preferences  and so be it.



Nathan Detroit.
HAPPY WINNINGS!!!  
Title: Re: 1.6% vs. 2.2%
Post by: Mr J on September 11, 2010, 04:47:50 PM
AP worked great.......
Title: Re: 1.6% vs. 2.2%
Post by: Mr J on September 11, 2010, 04:48:18 PM
....in 1923.  :sarcastic: (Hi Keyser! Yep, either Herb, DJ, NS....boring).
Title: Re: 1.6% vs. 2.2%
Post by: Nathan Detroit on September 11, 2010, 05:17:57 PM
Mr J,

Your guess is   correct  ---- 1923  , as  there was  no mention of  AP in the 1910 book by Mr. V.B., the author  of Monte Carlo Anectodes  and Systems.


Nathan Detroit
HAPPY WINNINGS!!!
Title: Re: 1.6% vs. 2.2%
Post by: gizmotron on September 11, 2010, 10:02:01 PM
Quote from: Herb6 on September 11, 2010, 04:33:26 PM
Just because you can't do it, you attempt to convince yourself that others can't do it either.  It's your lame attempt to explain your own failures.  Your bitterness and jealousy of others that have been more successful than you shows  in your posts.

I see an obvious pot kettle black moment here. You can give advice like that but can you take your own advice? Just because you can't read randomness and take advantage of it does not mean I can't do it. One day you will be dragged kicking and screaming to the reality that opportunity is not a constant function of odds.
Title: Re: 1.6% vs. 2.2%
Post by: Herb6 on September 11, 2010, 10:52:43 PM
Sorry Gizmo,

But I don't for even one minute take you or Mr. J seriously.